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Moderators: Casa, John, ChetanOjha, archigabe, CR001, push, JAJ, ca.funke, Amber, zimba, vinny, Obie, EUsmileWEallsmile, batleykhan, meself2, geriatrix
As I read the British Nationality Aact 1981 Section 50(9A)((c) and the corresponding regulation and its amendments, the girl is only British while the father satisfies the home Secretary that he is the 'natural father' of the child. Consequently, the girl is not yet British.Obie wrote:She is British , the Home office should not have issued dependent visa to her.
Criticising the ECO on the basis of a prospective change is wrong.Obie wrote:The woman knows the father of her child. All my advise given to her, if you read my advise, are based on the DNa test.
If there is proof of paternity, then it clearly has retroactive effect.
The regulations also mean that if evidence is never presented, the child is not British. I'm also rather concerned about the requirement that the father satisfy the SS of paternity. I think you are assuming that the courts will throw that requirement out. It's clearly unjust to posthumous children.Obie wrote:Either a child acquires citizenship at birth by virtue of section 1 (1) or section 2 (1) or they don't. As simple as that.
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The provision your earlier citied don't confer citizenship, they simply provide the means by which it can be proven.
That doesn't mean the ECO shouldn't have granted entry clearance.Obie wrote:Therefore if it is proven by the DNA, then the entry clearance is ultra vires, as the 1971 Act dies not apply to a British citizen, irrespective of whether the ECO knew about the status of the child.
Taking act and regulation together, the relevant definition under Section 50(9A)(c) for those whose birth certificate was issued on or after 10 September 2015 is that the father is someone who satisfies the requirement that he must satisfy the Secretary of State that he is the natural father of the child. (I do not see how to condense the wording without changing the range of meanings.)Obie wrote:I think you are conflating how a person acquire citizenship by virtue of the statute and how they prove it, to get documents confirming their citizenship.
What is your authority for this reasoning? Why does not the timing for legitimation apply; where legitimation is relevant, the rule is, "A person born out of wedlock and legitimated by the subsequent marriage of his parents shall, as from the date of the marriage, be treated for the purposes of this Act as if he had been born legitimate". (Some interpretation of the last bit is needed, which is presumably why the text of Section 47 is omitted from the consolidated version of the BNA 1981.) The relevant event would be the SS becoming satisfied.Obie wrote:If a person is a father of a child, he does not become the father following a positive paternity test. He became a father from the day the child is born. The paternity test simply prove a state of affair that existed after birth, that is, the person becoming a father.
I find that hard to believe. Are you reporting that British birth certificates are still being accepted as the only evidence? Even when issued before 10 September 2015, they had to be within a year of the birth to guarantee acceptance. Some foreign birth certificates do not need evidence to make good the lack of a father's acknowledgement; this makes sense in countries which lack the legal concept of illegitimacy, such as Thailand.Obie wrote:The paternity is only because father''s name was not on birth certificate, otherwise it would have been unnecessary.
A trustworthy properly conducted DNA test makes all these questions irrelevant - provided it comes up with the desired answer.aliq09 wrote:Case is not as simple as getting DNA results but it all goes to past history of father
1) Is father already married and got children from earlier marriage ?
2) Father is divorced and this is the second marriage etc
So in my it's not as simple as it appears ...