Immigrationboards.com

My situation is as follows:

I am an EU citizen, I'm a UK qualified chartered accountant working for a reputable UK firm for the last several years, and living in the UK. I own a home in the UK (mortgaged) and hold the vast majority of my assets here.

My absences have never been more than 90 days in any given year (in fact are always considerably less), have never been out of work, consistently pay tax/NI, nothing to question my good character, etc.

But the complication is that I am married and my spouse lives back in our country of origin, where she also works and owns property in her own name. We have been together for a number of years (since before I moved to the UK), and got married while I was in the UK (and she was overseas). She intends to keep living overseas, and I intend to keep living in the UK.

Is there any precedent for a case like this with the Home Office? If so - what?

And assuming they will request further proof of my future intentions - what kind of proof would be requested?

Thanks for any help!

How will a precedent help you?
Each case is assessed on its individual merits.
So ur married to someone abroad but you obviously have a job and assets here, you also don’t leave the country for long periods.. just shows that ur relationship is weak with ur spouse and more strong with Uk..
Point is- you shouldn’t be asked for any evidence.
Your wife could obviously take trips to UK to spend time with you..