Hi all,
My husband moved to UK on 20 June 2009 on Tier1(G) via an assignment through his employer in India(Say company A). In 2010, he was given a permanent position in UK office (of company A). He moved jobs in 2011 and took up a perm position with another company (say company B) and he is still working there. Through these 5 yrs, we travelled abroad only on holidays to visit family in India and to some places in Europe (no business travel) . All this was in paid vacation time. Total absense is less than 180 days.
I joined him in Sept 2009. I've been working on and off.
Can the wise people here please help answer my questions and validate my assumptions?
1. My husband and I can apply for ILR anytime after 20 June 2014 - Is this correct?
2. Do we need to get a letter from his employers (especially employer A) validating his paid leave for holidays? Are payslips enough to show that there are no salary deductions - hence the travel was in paid vacation time?
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