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Unclear how she qualified for ILR (indefinite leave to remain) as this requires 5 or 10 years legal residence in a qualifying visa. If her parents were married, then she is automatically British and should have applied for a Passport directly. The EXACT details and applications your wife made are VERY important as it makes a big difference on what your children can apply for.Apologies for the confusion, my wife originally applied for ILR, then citizenship soon after - her parents were married.
Your wife appears to have been AUTOMATICALLY British by descent since BIRTH if born abroad to a British father who was married to her mother. So not misinformation at all.At the time when I applied for my Spousal visa at the priority center, the official handling our case very confidential informed us, that our children would be eligible for citizenship because my wife is now a citizen... obviously this was misinformation which we learned the hard way when we applied later.
Can she remember what form she completed??my wife applied for Citizenship
No, they are not automatically British as your wife herself is British by descent which cannot be passed on to children born abroad.DropBear wrote: ↑Wed May 15, 2019 3:51 pmI am just having a look through this web page.
https://www.gov.uk/apply-citizenship-br ... -july-2006
Is this just saying that because my wife was already a citizen (whether she had a applied for a passport or not) when my children were born, my children are citizen's too?
I have just checked, and it was "CERTIFICATE OF ENT TO RIGHT OF ABODE", not ILR. Thanks for pointing this out. She applied for a British passport once she was in the country
The link refers to a registration as British on form UKM, children born before 1983 to British mothers, which is completely different to your wifes case. Prior to 1 January 1983, British women were NOT able to pass on their citizenship to children. Form UKM corrected this. So this does NOT apply to your wife.I guess reading this thread here has got me concerned british-citizenship/mn1-section-3-5-par ... 58628.html
If your wife was born to a British born Father AND he was married to her mother, she is automatically born British by descent if born abroad.My understanding is that 3(5) is based on the premise that the parent was British at the time of the child's birth. My wife hadn't gone through any of this process before the children were born so it comes down to whether she was always a citizen regardless of whether or not she had applied for it. Does that make sense?
You're welcome. Feel free to continue asking any questions you have or updating if you look at all the documents etc you might have.